GS Prelims 2018 Answer Key

SET A

1. Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Communist Party of India(CPI). It won 16 seats with the Indian National Congress wining 364 seats.

In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 10% of total strength of the Loksabha, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition

2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves

2. Tiny leaves

3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Basic question. No explanation needed.

3. As per the NSSO 70th Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households", consider the following statements:

1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.

2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.

3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

a. Rajasthan had highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households and Kerala had the least percentage share of agricultural households (27.3 percent) in its rural households.

b. Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for majority of the agricultural households in all the major States, except Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

c. Out of the total estimated agricultural households in the country, about 45 percent belonged to Other Backward Classes.

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=113796

4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.

2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

NGT was established by National Green Tribunal Act 2010 where as The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organization, was constituted in September, 1974 under The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.

Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981,:

(i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and

(ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.

Source: http://cpcb.nic.in/Introduction/

5. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Article 31B saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth Schedule from being challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights. Article 31B along with the Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951.

Originally (in 1951), the Ninth Schedule contained only 13 acts and regulations but at present (in 2016) their number is 282.11 Of these, the acts and regulations of the state legislature deal with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and that of the Parliament deal with other matters.

However, in a significant judgement delivered in I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule.

6. Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate sometimes seen in news?

(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.

(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.

(d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

7. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group' ?

1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.

2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".

Which of the statements given above.is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

NSG is a multinational body concerned with reducing nuclear proliferation by controlling the export and re-transfer of materials that may be applicable to nuclear weapon development and by improving safeguards and protection on existing materials.

NPT is a separate treaty. It is not linked with NSG.

8. With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.

2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements".

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

As per Finance Act, 2016

7. In section 10 of the Income-tax Act,—

(E) after clause (49), the following clause shall be inserted with effect from the 1st day of June, 2016, namely:—

‘(50) any income arising from any specified service provided on or after the date on which the provisions of Chapter VIII of the Finance Act, 2016 comes into force and chargeable to equalisation levy under that Chapter.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause, “specified service” shall have the meaning assigned to it in clause (i) of section 161 of Chapter VIII of the Finance Act, 2016.’.

So. Statement 1 is correct.

https://www.incometaxindia.gov.in/budgets%20and%20bills/2016/finance_bill_2016.pdf

Equalisation levy is a separate tax and cannot be equated with Income tax. Hence double tax Avoidance agreements are not applicable on equalisation levy. Also there will no double taxation within India as once the equalisation levy is imposed, such income will be exempt from tax under section 10(50) of the Income tax Act.

So, statement 2 is wrong.

9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Fisca1 Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.

2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21 % of GDP as compared to that of 49 % of GDP of the State Governments.

3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory. For a State to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. FRBM act was amended in 2018 by Finance Act 2018 and included the provision of debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.

Statement 2 is wrong as figures have been interchanged for centre and state.

Statements 3 is right

Article 293(3)

A State may not without the consent of the Government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of. edible oils in the last five years.

2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

According to ICRA, India occupies a prominent position in the world oilseeds industry with contribution of around 10% in worldwide production. But the demand of edible oils (extracted from oilseeds in addition to palm oil) is significantly higher than the domestic production, leading to dependence on imports (60% of requirement).

Read more at:

//economictimes.indiatimes.com/articleshow/60360710.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Statement 2 is wrong: Pls refer the following link

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=176583

11. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

(a) Aurobindo Ghosh

(b) Bipin Chandra Pal

(d) Motilal Nehru

$C:\Users\NITHI\Google Drive\GS- 2015\GS Prelims Analysis\2018\Optimized-Lalalajpat Rai.png$

Source: http://bit.ly/2JtIi6W

12. Consider the following statements :

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of Citizenship or domicile.

2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is true.

Section 9 of the The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery Of Financial And Other Subsidies, Benefits And Services) Act, 2016 reads:

“9. The Aadhaar number or the authentication thereof shall not, by itself, confer any right of, or be proof of, citizenship or domicile in respect of an Aadhaar number holder.”

Statement 2 is wrong: Aadhar can be deactivated

Section 2 (g) deals with omitting and deactivating of an Aadhaar number and information relating thereto in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

One more source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/wealth/personal-finance-news/around-81-lakh-aadhaar-cards-deactivated-heres-how-to-check-if-yours-is-active/articleshow/60083795.cms

13. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities ?

1. Aral Sea

2. Black Sea.

3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Explanation:

Option 1 is correct

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aral_Sea

Option 2 is wrong

Option 3 is correct.

http://bit.ly/2J76hJL

14. ''Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following ?

(a) Amnesty International

(b) International Court of Justice

(d) World Justice Project

15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

(a) Indian Banks' Association

(b) National Securities Depository Limited

(d) Reserve Bank of India

Source:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Payments_Corporation_of_India

The key products of NPCI are:

National Financial Switch (NFS) which connects 1,98,953 ATMs of 449 banks (91 Member Banks, 358 Sub- Member) [4]. Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) provided to 84 member banks, with more than 8.49 crore MMID (Mobile Money Identifier) issued, and crossed 10 million transactions.

16. Consider the following statements :

1. Capital Adequacy Ratio. (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of our funds to offset any loss that banks. incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.

2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Option 2 is wrong. It is decided by RBI

17. The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)" What does it imply?

1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.

2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2 are correct

https://authportal.uidai.gov.in/developer

18. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts ?

(a) Angola and Zambia

(b) Morocco and Tunisia

(d) Yemen and South Sudan

19. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced

2. Establishment of universities was recommended

3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 3 is wrong as Wood’s dispatch recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.

20. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees Scrutinizers and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(d) Business Advisory Committee

21. Consider the following statements:

1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.

2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary Classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.

3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is right. That’s leaves us with 2 only as option. i.e. (b)

$C:\Users\NITHI\Google Drive\GS- 2015\GS Prelims Analysis\2018\Optimized-NCTE.png$

22. Consider the following pairs :

Tradition	State
1. Chapchar Kut festival	Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad	Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance	Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

23. Consider the following statements:

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.

2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body under Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

24. The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

(a) China

(b) Israel ·

(d) Yemen

25. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidized food grains.

2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.

3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

26. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

(a) ILO

(b) IMF

(d) WTO

27. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.

2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.

3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

28. With reference to digital payments; consider the following statements:

1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.

2.While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The BHIM apps has three levels of authentication. For one, the app binds with a device’s ID and mobile number, second a user needs to sync whichever bank account (UPI or non-UPI enabled) in order to the conduct transaction. Third, when a user sets up the app they are asked to create a pin which is needed to log into the app. Further, the UPI pin, which a user creates with their bank account is needed to go through with the transaction.

29. Among the following cities, which one lies On a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

(a) Bengaluru

(b) Hyderabad

(d) Pune

Delhi longitude: 77.1025° E

Bengaluru longitude: 77.5946° E

Hyderabad longitude: 78.4867° E

30. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

(a) Child Labour

(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to

global climate change

Security

(d) Gender parity at the workplace

31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India

Explanation:

Option a,b and d are part of Article 110. Hence answer is C.

Article 110

110. Definition of Money Bill

(1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely

(a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;

(b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;

(c) the custody of the consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;

(d) the appropriation of moneys out of the consolidated Fund of India;

(e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure;

(f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State; or

(g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub clause (a) to (f)

32. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which· of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: It is value of Vote and not Votes

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electoral_College_(India)

The number of votes for MPs are as follows:

Name of the House	Number of Parliamentary seats (elective)	Value of the vote of each MP	Total value of votes for the House
Lok Sabha	543	708	384,444
Rajya Sabha	233	708	164,964
Total	776	708	549,408

33. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.

(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) March 3 approved an additional protocol to India's safeguards agreement, ostensibly providing the agency with greater authority to monitor India's civilian nuclear activities. New Delhi, which is not a member of the nuclear Nonproliferation Treaty (NPT), reached an "India-specific" agreement with the agency last year to place some of its nuclear facilities under safeguards while other facilities remain available for use for India's nuclear weapons efforts. (See ACT, September 2008.) That agreement paved the way for the 45-member Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) to adopt an exemption for sharing nuclear technology with India. (See ACT, October 2008.)

Although the additional protocol is ordinarily a voluntary measure, U.S. legislation adopted in 2006 stipulated that India must make "substantial progress toward concluding an additional protocol consistent with IAEA principles, practices, and policies that would apply to India's civil nuclear program" before the United States could engage in nuclear trade with India.

34. Consider the following countries:

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. China

4. India

5. Japan

6. USA

Which of the above are among the 'free-trade’ partners of ASEAN?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

Explanation:

Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade agreement (FTA) between the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and the six states with which ASEAN has existing free trade agreements (Australia, China, India, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand).

35. ‘With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in a Paris in 2015.

2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.

3. India was instrumental in the creation of GASCA.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

India was NOT instrumental in the creation of GASCA. So, option 3 is wrong. That gives us answer as b.

36. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India?

1. Formation of India is own Internet companies like China did.

2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.

3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

37. Consider the following pairs:

Towns sometimes mentioned in news	Country
1. Aleppo	Syria
2. Kirkuk	Yemen
3. Mosul	Palastine
4. Mazar-i-sharif	Afghasitan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

38. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

(a) Federal Legislature

(b) Governor General

(d) Provincial Governors

39. Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

40. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Explanation:

According to John Locke “where there is no law, there is no freedom”.

41. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of· a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only ·

(d) Neither 1nor2

Explanation: As per Article 361(2) of the Constitution there is a bar on criminal proceedings against a Governor. As per 158(2), emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Source: Lakshmikant Indian polity

42. The well-known painting "BaniThani" belongs to the

(a) Bundi school

(b) Jaipur school

(d) Kishangarh school

Explanation : Bani Thani is an Indian miniature painting painted by Nihâl Chand from the Marwar school of Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful.

Source : Nithin Singhania and our Culture class

43. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?

(a) An Israeli radar system

(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile Programme

(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

Explanation: Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area Defense, is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short-, medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or reentry) by intercepting with a hit-to-kill approach.

Source: Newspaper

44. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.

2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.

3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.

4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation : Tyagaraja composed kirtanas in honour of Rama, also Annamacharya(15thC) and Tyagaraja(18thC) were not contemporaries. Tyagaraja systemically developed ragas.

45. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People’s responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select-the correct answer using the code given

below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Rule of law limits arbitrary power of state through judicial reviews and constitution. It provides rights and liberties and equality before law.

46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases

(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

(d) The metallic money in circulation in a Country

Explanation : legal tender means coins or bank notes that should be accepted in a transaction. Option c,d only partially explains the term

47. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

(a) the opportunity cost is zero.

(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.

(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

Explanation : Opportunity cost refers to the cost of foregoing a better alternative/opportunity to take another course of action. Freebie culture entails cost on public exchequer

Source : wikipedia

48. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

(a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.

(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

(d) imports grow faster than exports.

Explanation : if poverty and employment rise was simultaneous, it implies inequitable growth. GNP denotes productivity of Indian nationals irrespective of national boundaries, so Indian nationals abroad can be doing well, India could be getting remittances, country wealth growth could provide economic activity and thereby promotes employment. Option d ran close but it was too indirect and one dimensional when compared to option c. increased imports also highlight growing consumerism, which is a sign of eco development.

49. Consider the following statements:Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.

2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels arid capacities of the people of the country

3. accumulation of tangible wealth.

4. accumulation of intangible wealth

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer : c

Explanation : increasing the knowledge, skill levels arid capacities of the people of the country is increasing human capital and it is intangible wealth as well

50. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

(a) weak administrative machinery

(b) illiteracy

(d) high capital-output ratio

Answer : d

Explanation : higher capital output ratio leads to reduced productivity, a,b,c options are only one dimensional problems only

Source : wikipedia

51. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

1. The territories called 'SanthalParaganas' were created.

2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2only

(d) Neither 1nor2

Answer : c

Explanation : santhal paraganas was created as a separate district in the aftermath of the uprising. Special protection to tribal land rights was provided thereafter.

Source : spectrum comprehensive modern history

52. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts

(b) growth in the number of Indian OwnedFactories

(d) rapid increase in the urban population

Answer : c

Explanation : handicrafts exports replaced with raw materials, Indian factories were not encouraged, no rapid increase in urban population

Source : spectrum comprehensive modern history

53. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(d) the President can make laws relating tothat State.

Answer : b

Explanation : state legislature can be suspended and can be dissolved only after test of majority even during the presidential rule. Parliament takes over legislative powers of such state, not the president. Article 19 need not be suspended as it is not threat to security but it is breakdown of state machinery against norms of constitution.

Source : lakshmikanth, SC judgements

54. Consider the following pairs :

Craft	Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli shawls	Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery	Maharashtra
3. UppadaJamdani saris	Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1and2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer : a

Explanation : uppada jamdani belongs to Andhra Pradesh while sujni belongs to Bihar.

55.In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

1. Mobile phone operations

2. Banking operations

3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer : d

Explanation : google maps, bank correspondent, money circulation tracking, power grid mapping all use GPS apps.

Source : Internet

56. Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities

2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.

3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer : c

Explanation : RBI do not handle state securities, it is banker of central govt and conduct OMOs to raise money for central govt.

Source : Indian economy material

57. Consider the following statements:

1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. ·

2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.

3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3only

(d) l, 2 and 3

Explanation : pole reversals are called as chrons. On avg, pole reversality was seen every 4,50,000 yrs. When earth was created, negligible amount of oxygen available. Also beginning of life on earth altered the atmosphere fundamentally to support life.

Source : world physical geography NCERT,

58. The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

(a) Exoplanets

(b) Cryptocurrency

(d) Mini satellites

Answer : c

Explanation : 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' are ransomwares, a tool used by cyber hackers to disable device and demand money for enabling back the device

59. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices

2. Adopting minimum tillage

3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops

4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface

5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) l,3and4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Explanation:

CA is a set of soil management practices that minimize the disruption of the soil's structure, composition and natural biodiversity. Despite high variability in the types of crops grown and specific management regimes, all forms of conservation agriculture share three core principles. These include:

maintenance of permanent or semi-permanent soil cover (using either a previous crop residue or specifically growing a cover crop for this purpose);
minimum soil disturbance through tillage (just enough to get the seed into the ground)
regular crop rotations to help combat the various biotic constraints;

Source: : http://conservationagriculture.mannlib.cornell.edu/pages/aboutca/whatisca.html

60. The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercialfarming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts ·of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.

(b) Fears of a possible collision. of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many speciesincluding those of dinosaurs.

(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many ··parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

(d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

Explanation:

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holocene_extinction

The Holocene extinction, otherwise referred to as the Sixth extinction or Anthropocene extinction, is the ongoing extinction event of species during the present Holocene epoch, mainly as a result of human activity.[1] The large number of extinctions spans numerous families of plants and animals, including mammals, birds, amphibians, reptiles and arthropods. With widespread degradation of highly biodiverse habitats such as coral reefs and rainforests, as well as other areas, the vast majority of these extinctions is thought to be undocumented, as we are either not even aware of the existence of the species before they go extinct, or we haven't yet discovered their extinction. The current rate of extinction of species is estimated at 100 to 1,000 times higher than natural background rates.

61. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:

1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.

2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq.km beyond its borders.

3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) None

Answer : a

Explanation : It covers India plus 1500 KMs only and no global coverage can be provided by NAVIC

Source : ISRO website

62. Consider the following phenomena:

1. Light is affected by gravity:

2. The Universe is constantly expanding.

3. Matter warps its surrounding

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

(a).1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) l, 2 and 3

Explanation :

Some of the consequences of general relativity are:

Clocks run slower in deeper gravitational wells.[10] This is called gravitational time dilation.
Orbits precess in a way unexpected in Newton's theory of gravity. (This has been observed in the orbit of Mercury and in binary pulsars).
Rays of light bend in the presence of a gravitational field.
Rotating masses "drag along" the spacetime around them; a phenomenon termed "frame-dragging".
The universe is expanding, and the far parts of it are moving away from us faster than the speed of light.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theory_of_relativity

63. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:

1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests

2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.

3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: GM Mustard was developed by Centre for genetic manipulation of crop plants, Delhi university. Hence, statement 3 is wrong. That leaves us with answer as b.

64. Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes

seen in news

Context /Topic

1. Belle II

Experiment

Artificial

Intelligence

2. Blockchain

technology

Digital/

Cryptocurrency

3. CRISPR - Cas9

Particle

Physic

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation : belle 2 is a particle physics experiment regarding mesons. CRISPR Cas 9 is gene editing technology. Blockchain technology is used in bitcoins for authentication of transactions between parties.

65. Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Explanation : the increased CO2 in air increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants, this is called carbon fertilization effect.

66. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirrorin your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.

In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

(a) Border Gateway Protocol

(b) Internet of Things

(d) Virtual Private Network

Explanation : since IoT is a network of connected devices embedded with electronics, sensors, etc.,

67. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:

1. India is the third largest in third world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.

2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source: https://www.statista.com/statistics/268108/world-silicon-production-by-country/

Major countries in silicon production from 2012 to 2017 (in 1,000 metric tons)*

68. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium

(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead

(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium.

Explanation : 18thC involves East India Company mainly as traders in Indian finished products, mainly cotton, silk, opium products

Source : history class notes, spectrum comprehensive history of modern india.

69. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement

(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement

(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

Explanation : Champaran satyagraha resulted in politicizing the issue of farmers, esp in Bihar indigo plantation workers. It only resulted in ending previous illegal dues collected by white planters.

Source : spectrum modern india

70. Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948?

(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboo diripad and KC. George

(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy

(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G.Mehta

Explanation: It was founded as all india union in west Bengal, 1948 by socialists and forward bloc members.

71. With reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(d) Shaivism

Sthanakavasi is a sect of Svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha.

72. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.

2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Hindu- Into the depths of history JUNE 12, 2015. NCERT

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/columns/buland-darwaza-and-rumi-darwaza-gateways-to-heaven/article19700177.ece

The Buland Darwaza is made of red and buff sandstone, decorated by white and black marble and is higher than the courtyard of the mosque.

73. Which one of the following foreign travelers elaborately discussed about diamonds anddiamond mines of India?

(a) Francois Bernier

(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

(d) Abbe BarthelemyCarre

Themes in Indian History Part-II pg 116

http://www.thehindu.com/life-and-style/secret-lives-of-indian-jewels/article22377010.ece

The Hope Diamond, said to be mined in the Kollur mines in Andhra Pradesh, and acquired by French gem merchant, Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, in 1666.

74. With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

(a) Avalokiteshvara

(b) Lokesvara

(d) Padmapani

Ncert: AN INTRODUCTION TO INDIAN ART chapter 4

Along with the images of the Buddha, other Buddhist images of Boddhisattvas like Avalokiteshvara, Padmapani, Vajrapani, Amitabha, and Maitreya Buddha started getting sculpted. However, with the rise of Vajrayana Buddhism many Boddhisattva images were added as a part of the personified representations of certain virtues or qualities as propagated by the Buddhist religious principles for the welfare of the masses.

75. Which one of the following statements does not to the system of Subsidiary alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

(a) To maintain a large standing army at other's expense

(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger

(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States

Ans: C

BL Grover & Sekhar bandopadhyay

76. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1. Charter Act of 1813

2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823

3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1and2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source: Spectrum

According to the clause 43 of the Charter Act of 1813 the Company had partly undertaken the responsibility of education in India and a sum of one lakh of rupees had been earmarked for the purpose. But no concrete steps were taken in this regard before 1823. The section of the Charter Act of 1813 remained inoperative till 1823. The Company was reluctant initially to spend the money as it had no definite policy and agency with regard to the mode of expenditure of the said amount.

This uncertain situation for a dec¬ade gave rise to educational controversies. At last in 1823 an official agency (the G.C.P.I.) was created to deal with educational matters, particularly the expenditure of the sum of one lakh of rupees. “Thus a state system of edu-cation was begun almost simultaneously in all the three Presidencies by about 1823 and continued to expand till 1833. The educational grant of India was also increased from one lakh to ten lakhs of rupees per annum”.

In 1832 the sharp division of opinion in the Committee led to the rise of two distinct and hostile parties of equal number – the Orientalists (classicists) and Occidentalists (Anglicists).

77. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/private-firm-to-maintain-kodaikanal-lake-road/article21246412.ece

78. With reference to Pradhan MantriKaushalVikasYojana, consider the following statements:

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment

2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.

3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: C

Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1515326

79. In 1920 which of the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha”?

(a) All India Home Rule League

(b) Hindu Mahasabha

(d) The Servants of India Society

Source: http://bit.ly/2Htgevi

80. Which among the following events happened earliest?

(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.

(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpanl.

(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to. succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

Source: NCERT & Spectrum

81. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

1. Decreased salinity in the river

2. Pollution of groundwater

3. Lowering of the water-table

Select the correct answer ·using the code. Given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/as-pampa-shrinks-life-ebbs-away/article5752744.ece

82. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.

2. Soil does not play any role in the Sulphur cycle.

3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) l, 2 and 3

http://www.fao.org/3/a-a0100e.pdf

83. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg

(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

(d) The World Sustainable Summit 2016, New Delhi

84. "3D printing" has applications in which of the following?

1. Preparation of confectionery items

2. Manufacture of bionic ears

3. Automotive industry

4. Reconstructive surgeries

5. Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

85. Consider the following statements:

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.

2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.

3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-barren-islandvolcano-erupts-again/article17369862.ece

86. Why is a plant called Prosopis Juliflora often mentioned in news?

(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.

(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

(d) None of the above

87. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.

2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.

3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1and2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

1. Tropical waters form the ideal conditions for formation of Corals.

2. Australia has the biggest coral reef i.e Great Barrier reef. The Great Barrier Reef, off the coast of Queensland in northeastern Australia, is the largest living thing on Earth, and even visible from outer space. The 2,300km-long ecosystem comprises thousands of reefs and hundreds of islands made of over 600 types of hard and soft coral.

3. 32 of the 34 animal phyla live on reefs, compared to "just" nine phyla in tropical rain forests.

https://whyfiles.org/245coral_reef/

88. "Momentum for Change Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by

(a) The Intergovernmental Panel Climate Change

(b) The UNEP Secretariat

(d) The World Meteorological Organization

Source: https://unfccc.int/news/momentum-for-change-climate-neutral-now

89. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:

Institution Founder

1. Sanskrit College at Benaras William Jones

2. Calcutta Madarsa Warren Hastings

3. Fort William College Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Source: Spectrum

90. Consider the following pair:

Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country

1. Catalonia Spain

2. Crimea Hungary

3. Mindanao Phillippines

4. Romia Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Romia is in Ethopia. Crimea was part of Ukraine .

91. Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.

2. India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank of India'.

3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.

4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?

(a) 4-1-2-3

(b) 3-2-1-4

(d) 3-1-2-4

Explanation:

01-08-1953 Air India nationalised and becomes India’s national carrier

01-07-1955 India’s largest bank Imperial Bank of India renamed as State Bank of India

05-04-1957 First democratically elected Communist Party government outside Europe gets to power in Kerala with CPI leader EMS Namboodiripad as the Chief Minister

19-12-1961 Goa is officially ceded to India after 400 years of Portuguese rule

http://www.thehindu.com/specials/independence-day-india-at-70/70-years-of-india/article19491975.ece

92. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b) Article 17 and the ·Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Source:

http://www.thehindu.com/news/resources/supreme-court-verdict-on-right-to-privacy/article19551827.ece

https://thewire.in/law/supreme-court-aadhaar-right-to-privacy

93. Consider the following:

1. Arecanut

2. Barley

3. Coffee

4. Finger millet

5. Groundnut

6. Sesamum

7. Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only

(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Source: http://www.indiaenvironmentportal.org.in/files/file/CROPS%20COVERED%20UNDER%20MSP.pdf

94. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Manipur

(d) Nagaland

95. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources ·monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.

2. · Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-the-difference-between-gslv-and-pslv/article6742299.ece

96. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with theparent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The answer depends on the interpretation of the word “steadily increased”

The below table from the CAG report (http://bit.ly/2M7NpYX) shows that capital infusion has been indeed steadily increasing

$C:\Users\NITHI\Google Drive\GS- 2015\GS Prelims Analysis\2018\Optimized-cag.png$

https://thewire.in/banking/sbi-associate-merger-loss-npas

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/centre-has-pumped-rs-2-6-lakh-crore-into-govt-run-banks-over-11-years/articleshow/62974836.cms

http://indianexpress.com/article/business/banking-and-finance/10-year-review-of-psu-banks-equity-return-bank-profitability-fails-to-keep-pace-with-govt-capital-infusion-4765680/

97. Consider the following items:

1. Cereal grains hulled

2. Chicken eggs cooked

3. Fish processed and canned

4. Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

* Answer is pending

HSN 4902: Newspapers, journals and periodicals, whether or not illustrated or containing advertising material – GST – NIL

HSN 0407: Birds' eggs, in shell, fresh, preserved or cooked – GST – NIL

https://www.business-standard.com/article/companies/more-players-possible-in-processed-foods-after-gst-cuts-117061201060_1.html

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/finmin-clarifies-on-gst-rate-on-selling-ad-space-in-print-media/article9828675.ece

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/faqs/gst-faqs/list-of-items-exempted-under-gst/articleshow/60191945.cms

98. Consider the following statements:

1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.

2.For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.

3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3only

(d) l, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. FRA defines CWHs as ‘areas of national parks and sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation’. In order to notify a CWH, the Act requires state governments to establish that the presence of right-holders is causing irreversible damage to wildlife and their habitats, and that co-existence between rights holders and wildlife was not a reasonable option.

2. In a bid to undo historical injustice meted out to primitive tribal communities living in central India, the government of Madhya Pradesh has for the first time recognised the habitat rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baigas.

3. District Level Committee ensure that Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups receive habitat rights.

http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/critical-wildlife-habitat-guidelines-issued-ntca-order-superseded-59934

http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/baiga-tribals-become-india-s-first-community-to-get-habitat-rights-52452

http://www.indiatogether.org/dongria-kondh-securing-tribal-rights-human-rights

99. Consider the following:

1. Birds

2. Dust blowing

3. Rain

4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

(a) l and 3only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

100.With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions ·of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.

2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.

3. Sikkim has become India's. first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Sikkim-becomes-India’s-first-organic-state/article13999445.ece

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/cons-products/food/is-the-two-certification-system-harming-indias-organic-food-market/articleshow/59826481.cms

http://apeda.gov.in/apedawebsite/organic/organic_contents/Chapter_2.pdf

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/label-mandatory-for-food-certified-as-organic-from-july/article22378459.ece

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=155000

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/cons-products/food/is-the-two-certification-system-harming-indias-organic-food-market/articleshow/59826481.cms

Note: For the questions 96 and 97 we will be submitting a representation to the UPSC under Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep)

http://upsconline.nic.in/miscellaneous/QPRep/

GS Prelims 2018 Answer Key

Post Author: NITHI IAS