GS Prelims 2019 - Answer Key

SET C – Key With Explanations

Note: For only key scroll down to end of the page

1. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements :

1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.

2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.

3. AR allows individuals to be present m the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.

4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4

Ans. B – Very Difficult question given the command over subject asked

Statement 1 and 2 have been given opposite

https://caenfaq.engin.umich.edu/xr/what-s-the-difference-between-ar-vr-and-mr

https://unity3d.com/what-is-xr-glossary

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3AADEqLIALk

2. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

(b) an early human species.

(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent

Ans. B – Very Difficult

Has the question to do with discovery of YETI as claimed by Indian Army.

Has been in news on May 1st 2019. So, should this mean you should be reading newspaper till one month before the exam instead of 45 days?

Neanderthals and Denisovans are sub-human species or a hominin that existed until 40,000 years ago. While Neanderthals lived in Europe and Asia, the fossils of Denisovans are known only from the cave where the fragment was found.

3. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct? ·

(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from - cells of different species.

(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.

(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

Ans. A – Difficult Question

4. Consider the following statements :

A digital signature is

1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it

2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet

3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans.C – Very difficult Question

What is a Digital Signature?

A digital signature is an electronic form of a signature that can be used to authenticate the identity of the sender of a message or the signer of a document, and also ensure that the original content of the message or document that has been sent is unchanged. Digital signatures are easily transportable and cannot be imitated by someone else. The ability to ensure that the original signed message arrived means that the sender cannot easily disclaim it later.

What is a Digital Signature Certificate (DSC)?

Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) is the electronic format of physical or paper certificate like a driving License, passport etc. Certificates serve as proof of identity of an individual for a certain purpose; for example, a Passport identifies someone as a citizen of that country; who can legally travel to any country. Likewise, a Digital Signature Certificate can be presented electronically to prove your identity, to access information or services on the Internet or to sign certain documents digitally.

https://www.e-mudhra.com/faq.html

A digital signature is an electronic method of signing an electronic document whereas a Digital Certificate is a computer based record which

1) Identifies the Certifying Authority issuing it.

2) Has the name or I the identity of its subscriber.

3) Contains the subscriber's public key.

4) Is digitally signed by the Certifying Authority issuing it.

https://www.ncodesolutions.com/faq-002.asp

5. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/ are accomplished by wearable devices?

1. Location identification of a person

2. Sleep monitoring of a person

3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. D – Easy

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wearable_technology

6. 'RNA in terference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.

2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.

3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.

4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3

Ans. A

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RNA_interference#Cancer

https://www.livemint.com/Opinion/qQSEpNfNPUEShuTezgvMaO/RNA-technologies-and-Indias-path-forward.html

7. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

(a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.

(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.

(d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.

Ans. B – Easy Question

8. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people

2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases

3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. B

Multiple chronic diseases in some people is not a reason for occurrence or spread of Multi drug resistance.

What accelerates the emergence and spread of antimicrobial resistance?

Antimicrobial resistance occurs naturally over time, usually through genetic changes. However, the misuse and overuse of antimicrobials is accelerating this process. In many places, antibiotics are overused and misused in people and animals, and often given without professional oversight. Examples of misuse include when they are taken by people with viral infections like colds and flu, and when they are given as growth promoters in animals or used to prevent diseases in healthy animals.

Antimicrobial resistant-microbes are found in people, animals, food, and the environment (in water, soil and air). They can spread between people and animals, including from food of animal origin, and from person to person. Poor infection control, inadequate sanitary conditions and inappropriate food-handling encourage the spread of antimicrobial resistance.

https://www.who.int/en/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/antimicrobial-resistance

9. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

Ans. A – Lollipop Question – Previous year UPSC question

10. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.

(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Ans. B – Lollipop question

11. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India

Which of the statements given above is/ are corred?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. D – Lollipop question

12. Consider the following statements:

1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.

2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

A – Lollipop question

13. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.

2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.

3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.

4. Area under ' sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. A - very difficult question

14. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

(a) Spices (b) Fresh fruits

Ans. D – very difficult question

15. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Ans. D – Difficult question

The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities.

16. Which one of the following in not the most likely measure the Government / RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?

(a) Curbing imports non-essential goods and promoting exports

(b) Encouraging 'Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala · Bonds

(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy

Ans. . D – Easy Question

Expansionary monetary policy leads to further increase in rupee availability in market. Increased rupee availability in market further slides the rupee against the dollar.

17. Consider the following statements:

The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment· systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India

2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises

3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. A – Very Difficult question

18. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

(a) Australia

(b) Canada

(d) The United States of America

Ans. C – Lolipop – Easy Question

19. Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which ·of the following countries?

(a) Japan

(b) Russia

(d) The United States of America

Ans. B – Moderately Difficult

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/energy/power/india-russia-sign-civil-nuclear-action-plan-for-second-plant-third-country-project/articleshow/66085647.cms

20. The money_ multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio

(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population

(d) Increase in the population of the country

Ans. B

If people are in the habit of keeping less in cash and more in deposits with the commercial banks, the money supply will be large. This is because banks can create more money with larger deposits. On the contrary, if people do not have banking habits and prefers to keep their money holdings in cash, credit creation by banks will be less and the money supply will be at a low level.

http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/economics/money/money-supply-determinants-of-money-supply-and-high-powered-money-and-money-multiplier/10971

21. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.

2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB

3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. A – Lolipol – Easy Question

22. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

(a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit

(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments

(d) To aim at faster' resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

Ans. D – Lolipop – Easy Question

23. The Chairmen of public sector banks are I selected by the

(a) Banks Board Bureau

(b) Reserve Bank of India

(d) Management of concerned bank

Ans. A – Lolipop Question

The heads of the public sector banks are made by the government on the recommendations of the Banks Board Bureau. The Appointment Committee of Cabinet (ACC), headed by the Prime Minister, approves these appointments/recommendations24. Consider the following statements:

24. Consider the following statements:

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.

2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive market for gas.

3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. B – Easy question

Statement 1 is wrong – Common sense

Remember RBI is also a regulatory body which was created even before independence.

25. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/ differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.

2. LTE is data only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. D – Easy question

26. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit? (Amendment) Act, 2017?

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months’ pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.

2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.

3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. C difficult

The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act has increased the duration of paid maternity leave available for women employees from the existing 12 weeks to 26 weeks. Under the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, this benefit could be availed by women for a period extending up to a maximum of 8 weeks before the expected delivery date and the remaining time can be availed post childbirth. For women who are expecting after having 2 children, the duration of paid maternity leave shall be 12 weeks (i.e., 6 weeks pre and 6 weeks post expected date of delivery).

27. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?

(a) Maintenance of law and order

(b) Paying taxes

(d) Dealing "With construction permits

Ans. A – Lollipop – Easy

28. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

(a) The ' Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998

(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999

(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

Ans. C – Lolipop – Easy

29. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmer’s plus

(a) transportation cost only

(b) interest cost only

(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

Ans. C

FCI’s economic cost has three main components — procurement cost, procurement price, and distribution cost. The procurement costs (incidentals) are the initial costs incurred during procurement of foodgrains in the markets/yards/centres. These are reported under statutory charges, labour charges, amount paid to the state agencies for establishment, storage and interest for stocks, etc. The FCI buys foodgrains from the farmers at the pre-announced MSP and stocks are released for the beneficiaries at CIP. The distribution costs include freight, handling, storage, interest and transit charges and establishment cost.

https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Components-of-economic-cost-of-foodgrains-incurred-by-the-Food-Corporation-of-India_fig1_279189313

30. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

(a) The proportion of literates in the population

(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines

(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Ans. D – Easy but tricky

https://darpg.gov.in/sites/default/files/Social_Capital9.pdf

31. The Service Area approach was implemented under the purview of

(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme

(b) Lead Bank Scheme

(d) National Skill Development Mission

Ans. B – Difficult

32. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.

2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central

3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. A – Very Difficult Question

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=155423

33. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.

2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. . D – Easy Question

Commercial borrowings is the largest component of external debt with a share of 38.2 per cent, followed by NRI deposits (23.8 per cent) and short-term trade credit (19.0 per cent).

34. Which of the following is not included· in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

(a) Advances

(b) Deposits

(d) Money at call arid short notice

Ans. B – Lollipop Question

Deposits are liability to the bank because when the customer asks for withdrawal banks are supposed to pay back.

35. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector

2. Increasing the government expenditure

3. Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Ans. B – Lolipop Question

36. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Ans. C – Difficult question

37. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

(a) Certificate of Deposit

(b) Commercial Paper

(d) Participatory Note

Ans. D – lollipop Question

38. Consider the following statements:

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.

2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. A – Lollipop Question

39. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

1. Ad Hoc committees set up by the Parliament

2. Parliamentary Department Related standing committees

3. Finance Commission

4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5. NITI Aayog

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. A – Lollipop Question

Niti Aayog does not review

40. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.

2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.

3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was inducted as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. B – Very Difficult Question

Second plan: The use of modem technology requires large scale production and a unified control and allocation of resources in certain major lines of activity. These include exploitation, of minerals and basic and capital goods industries which are major determinants of the rate of growth of the economy.

http://planningcommission.nic.in/plans/planrel/fiveyr/2nd/2planch2.html

Fourth Plan: While increased production is of the utmost importance it is equally important to remove or reduce, and prevent the concentration of wealth and economic power

http://planningcommission.nic.in/plans/planrel/fiveyr/4th/4ppre.htm

41. Considering the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.

2. A Stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.

3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.

4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. C – Difficult Question

There are 75 notified PVTGs.

42. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the Exercise of its Powers by laws made by the Parliament

(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of Indian can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make 1aws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Ans. B – Lolipop Question

43. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements :

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.

2. When a State legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. . A – Difficult Question

Article 208 (1) of the Constitution of India authorizes each House of the Legislature of State to formulate Rules for regulating its Procedure and Conduct of Business.

44. Consider the following statements :.

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrant by Land, Sea and Air’

2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument

3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of · a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.

4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. C – Very Difficult Question

45. Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.

2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.

3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. B – Easy Question

46. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?

(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21

Ans. B – Difficult question

SC statement Judgement in Sec 377 case :

1. Section 377 of the IPC is liable to be struck down for being violative of Article 14 of the Constitution. Any discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation is violative of the fundamental right to speech and expression

Read more at: https://www.deccanherald.com/national/supreme-court-of-india-decriminalises-homosexuality-691346.html

2. Section 377 discriminates against a minority solely for their sexual orientation. It violates the right of the LGBTIQ community to “equal citizenship and equal protection of laws”. The court held that bodily autonomy is individualistic. Choice of partner is part of the fundamental right to privacy.

47. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.

2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.

3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. A – Controversial Question

Monosonta has been given patent for Bollgard , a GM cotton variety. Currently, Monsanto case is pending in the Supreme Court/High Court and there is no legal clarity about whether seeds created through biological process can be patented or no.

As of today, Monsanto still holds patent.

UPSC keeps simple thinking and hence we give statement 1 as correct.

48. Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought

2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. B – Easy Question

49. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.

(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.

(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generate in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Ans. C – Difficult question

50. Consider the following statements:

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/ companies to lay off workers

2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. B – Very Difficult Question

Fixed-term employment extended to all sectors to boost ease of business

www.economictimes.indiatimes.com/articleshow/63382807.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

51. Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.

2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.

3. Poultry industry releases nitrogen compounds reactive into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, and 3 only

Ans. . D – Very Difficult Question

1. Livestock on farms produce a lot of manure and thus a lot of ammonia, which is harmful for the environment and reduces biodiversity. Central government is taking steps to cut ammonia emissions.

2. Ruminant animals do not efficiently utilize dietary nitrogen. Excess nitrogen fed in the form of feed proteins is excreted in manure (urine + feces). Dairy cows on average secrete in milk 25 to 35 percent of the nitrogen they consume and almost all the remaining nitrogen is excreted in urine and feces with about half of the nitrogen excreted in urine

https://www.government.nl/topics/livestock-farming/ammonia-emissions-from-farms

https://extension.psu.edu/nitrogen-ammonia-emissions-and-the-dairy-cow

The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece

52. What is Common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits

(b) Tropical rain forests

(d) Water reservoirs

Ans. . D – Very difficult question

53. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements :

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.

2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.

3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.

4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2, and 3 only

Ans. . B – Difficult Question

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HCNG

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/cng-to-hydrogen-cng-why-switch-and-how-5278356/

54. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.

(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.

(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

Ans. B – Difficult Question

The favourable weather elements for dew include clear skies, light wind, decent soil moisture, and low night-time dew point depressions. Cloudy skies will reflect and absorb while re-emitting longwave radiation back to the surface and that prevents as much cooling from occurring. Clear skies allow for the maximum release of longwave radiation to space

55. Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. B – Lolipop – Easy Question

56. Consider the following statements:

1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only

Ans. C – Lolipop – Easy Question

57. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d) Morarji Desai

Ans. A – Easy Question

58. Consider the following statements:

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.

2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.

3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. A – Lolipop Question

59. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. A – Lollipop Question

60. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule

Ans. B – Lolipop Question

61. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

(a) anti-malarial drug

(b) blodiesel

(d) textile fibre

Ans. D – Difficult Question

62. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location

2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location

3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. D – Very Difficult Question

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Remote_sensing

63. Consider the following States:

1. Chhattisgarh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Maharashtra

4. Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

(a) 2-3-1-4 (b) 2-3-4-1

Ans. C – Difficult Question

64. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.

2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.

3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. D

i. As the Earth warms, and the Arctic warms especially fast, the permafrost melts and soil decomposition accelerates releasing methane trapped in the frozen gas hydrates.

ii. Enormous amounts of methane hydrate have been found beneath Arctic permafrost, beneath Antarctic ice, and in sedimentary deposits along continental margins worldwide.

iii. Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH-

https://geology.com/articles/methane-hydrates/

https://worldoceanreview.com/en/wor-1/ocean-chemistry/climate-change-and-methane-hydrates/

http://earthguide.ucsd.edu/virtualmuseum/climatechange1/03_3.shtml

65. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide

2. Methane

3. Ozone

4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. D

1. The IARI study estimates that in 2008-09, crop residue burning released 149.24 million tonnes of carbon dioxide (CO2), over 9 million tonnes of carbon monoxide (CO), 0.25 million tonnes of oxides of sulphur (SOX), 1.28 million tonnes of particulate matter and 0.07 million tonnes of black carbon.

2. According to a study published in Nature, the total amount of carbon released as a result of the fires in September-October 2015 was about 0.23 million tonnes. Of this, 83 per cent was in the form of carbon dioxide (0.7 million tonnes), 16 per cent carbon monoxide (0.9 million tonnes), and 1 per cent methane (3,200 tonnes).

Given the options D is the best answer because CO, SOx and Methane are emitted during burning.

66. Consider the following pairs:

Sea	Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea	Albania
2. Black Sea	Croatia
3. Gaspian Sea	Kazakhstan
4.Mediterranean Sea	Morocco
5. Red Sea	Syria

Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. B – Lolipop Question

67. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

(a) China (b) India

Ans. B – Difficult question but worth taking risk to mark bcs India is one of the top producers of rice in the world

68. Consider the following pairs:

Glacier	River
1.Bandarpunch	Yamuna
2.Bara Shigri	Chenab
3. Milam	Mandakini
4. Siachen	Nubra
5. Zemu	Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. A – Very Difficult Question

69. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

(a) pesticides in agriculture

(b) preservatives in processed foods

(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics

Ans. A – Difficult Question

Above all are pesticide names used in agriculture.

70. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.

2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.

3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. . B – Easy Question

Ramsar convention is legally non-binding on parties to the convention.

71. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?

(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

(b)Tobacco, cotton and rubber.

(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat

Ans. . A – Very Difficult question

Old World refers to Africa, Asia, and Europe while New World refers to the Americas, including North America, Central America, and South America. Europe, Asia, and Africa shared a common agricultural history that originated from the Neolithic Revolution. The three continents shared common domesticated plants and animals making it easy to group them together. The Old World crops include wheat, rye, oats, lentils, and barley. The Old World animals include sheep, pigs, chickens, goats, horses, and cattle. Such animals and crops did not exist in the Americas until their introduction in the 1490s by post-Columbian contact. The famous New World crops include rubber, tobacco, sunflower, cocoa, and cashew. New World fruits include papaya, pineapple, and guava. The merchants of Europe took products of the New World to Europe, including tobacco, potatoes, canesugar, cacao and rubber.

NOTE: Some plants such as cotton and yam as well as some animals like the dog are believed to have existed in both worlds.

72. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found III India only.

2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.

3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. A – Very Difficult Question

One horned Rhino is found in Nepal.

Double-humped camel is found in Central Asia as well as Ladakh, India.

73. Consider the following pairs

Famous place	River
Pandharpur	Chandrabhaga
Tiruchirappalli	Cauvery
Hampi	Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. A – Easy Question

Hampi is located on banks of River Tungabhadra

74. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

(a) poverty rates vary from State to State

(b) price levels vary from State to State

(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State

Ans. B – Difficult Question

http://planningcommission.nic.in/news/pre_pov2307.pdf

75. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions

(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

(d) Reducing the global warming

Ans. . D – Very Difficult Question

https://journals.ametsoc.org/doi/full/10.1175/JCLI-D-17-0620.1

76. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?

(a) Extraction of rare earth elements

(b) Natural gas extraction technologies

(d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Ans. . D – Easy Question

77. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Ans. A – Easy Question

78. Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.

2. Some species of fish are herbivores.

3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.

4. Some speeies of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. D – Very Difficult Question

https://www.livescience.com/45539-what-do-turtles-eat.html

Fishes are predominantly Carnivorous and very few Herbivorous

https://www.thoughtco.com/herbivore-definition-2291714

79. Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife	Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer	Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin	Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat	Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. C – Very Difficult Question

The Irrawaddy dolphin is a euryhaline species of oceanic dolphin found in discontinuous subpopulations near sea coasts and in estuaries and rivers in parts of the Bay of Bengal and Southeast Asia.

80. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?

(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.

(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Ans. . A – Difficult Question

https://animalsaustralia.org/features/plastic-microbeads-poisoning-marine-life.php

81. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

(a) Chalukya

(b) Chandela

(d) Vijayanagara

Ans. D – Easy Question

82. Consider the following statements:

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.

2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.

3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. A

Mir Bakshi  Mughal Era

Iqta system is an islamic practice.

83. Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contem-porary of Akbar.

2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. D – Very Difficult question

Saint Nibarka (11-13th century ) was not a contemporary of Akbar ( 16th century).

Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi was born after Saint Kabir

84. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.

2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.

3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Ans. B – Very Difficult Question

Gandhi Ji mobilized troops for the British during 1st World War. So, Statement 2 is wrong.

85. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:

Person	Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru	President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K. C. Neogy	Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P. C. Joshi	General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. D – Very Difficult question

86. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.

(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.

(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.

Ans. A – Very Difficult Question

Akbar considered him as a Navaratnas (nine jewels), and gave Tansen the title Mian, an honorific, meaning learned man.

87. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

(a) Humayun (b) Akbar

Ans. C – Easy Question

88. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

(a) Manas National Park

(b) Namdapha National Park

(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Ans. D – Very Difficult question

89. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

(a) Department of Science and Technology

(b) Ministry of Employment

(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Ans. . C – Lolipop Question

90. On 21st June, the Sun

(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Ans. A – Lollipop Question

91. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. D – Difficult Question

In return of all the privileges and superior rights, the zamindars were supposed to perform certain duties. Their main function naturally was the collection and deposition of the land revenue into the royal treasury. Besides this, the zamindars were expected to maintain law and order in their jurisdictions. They also helped the state officials in curbing the refractory and rebellions elements. The troops maintained by the zamindars were to be placed at the disposal of the state officials whenever the need arose.

ii. Land assignments to Jagirdars were neither permanent nor hereditary.

92. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The ceiling "laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Ans. B – Easy Question

The unit of application of ceiling also differs from State to State. In Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and Maharshtra, it is on the basis of a 'land holder', whereas in the other States it is one the basis of a 'family'.

93. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

(a) International Monetary Fund

(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

(d) World Bank

Ans. . C – Lollipop Question

94. Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.

2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.

3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. A – Very Difficult Question

1. The East India Company Act 1813, also known as the Charter Act 1813, was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom which renewed the charter issued to the British East India Company, and continued the Company's rule in India. However, the Company's commercial monopoly was ended, except for the tea and opium trade and the trade with China, this reflecting the growth of British power in India

1. The Act expressly asserted the Crown's sovereignty over British India.

2. It allotted Rs 100,000 to promote education in Indian masses and allowed them to open anywhere anytime.

3. This act permitted Christian missionaries to propagate English and preach their religion.

2. From 1853, the revenues of India were controlled by the British Parliament.

95. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.

2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. . C – Easy Question

96. Consider the following pairs:

Movement/Organization	Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League	Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha	Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3.Self-Respect Movement	E.V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. D – Easy Question

97. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

(a) Chanhudaro

(b) Kot Diji

(d) Desalpur

Ans. C – Difficult Question

98. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

(a) Kanganahalli (b) Sanchi I

Ans. . A – Very Difficult Question

https://books.google.co.in/books?id=H3lUIIYxWkEC&pg=PA333&dq=ranyo+ashoka&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwir9eHF3tHiAhVc73MBHTHxAD4Q6AEIKDAA#v=onepage&q=ranyo%20ashoka&f=false

99. Consider the following:

1. Deification of the Buddha

2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas

3. Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. D – Difficult Question

100. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

Ans. A – Very Difficult Question

SET A

Q No.	Key
1	D
2	B
3	C
4	A
5	C
6	D
7	C
8	A
9	D
10	A
11	D
12	A
13	D
14	B
15	D
16	A
17	C
18	D
19	C
20	A
21	A
22	A
23	A
24	B
25	D

Q No.	Key
26	D
27	A
28	D
29	C
30	A
31	D
32	D
33	C
34	D
35	D
36	B
37	B
38	A
39	A
40	B
41	D
42	D
43	B
44	B
45	B
46	C
47	A
48	A
49	A
50	B

Q No.	Key
51	C
52	B
53	A
54	C
55	B
56	B
57	A
58	B
59	C
60	B
61	B
62	A
63	D
64	B
65	B
66	C
67	D
68	A
69	A
70	B
71	A
72	D
73	A
74	B
75	D

Q No.	Key
76	C
77	A
78	C
79	C
80	D
81	D
82	A
83	A
84	D
85	B/D
86	D
87	A
88	C
89	B
90	B
91	B
92	B
93	A
94	C
95	D
96	A
97	B
98	B
99	A
100	B

SET B

Q No.	Key
1	D
2	D
3	B
4	B
5	B
6	C
7	A
8	A
9	A
10	B
11	D
12	D
13	C
14	D
15	D
16	B
17	B
18	A
19	A
20	B
21	D
22	A
23	D
24	B
25	D

Q No.	Key
26	A
27	C
28	D
29	C
30	A
31	D
32	B
33	C
34	A
35	C
36	D
37	C
38	A
39	D
40	A
41	A
42	A
43	A
44	B
45	D
46	D
47	A
48	D
49	C
50	A

Q No.	Key
51	B
52	B
53	A
54	C
55	D
56	A
57	B
58	B
59	A
60	B
61	D
62	A
63	A
64	D
65	B/D
66	D
67	A
68	C
69	B
70	B
71	B
72	A
73	D
74	B
75	B

Q No.	Key
76	C
77	D
78	A
79	A
80	B
81	C
82	B
83	A
84	D
85	B
86	B
87	A
88	B
89	C
90	B
91	A
92	D
93	A
94	C
95	D
96	C
97	A
98	C
99	C
100	D

SET C

Q No.	Key
1	B
2	B
3	A
4	C
5	D
6	A
7	B
8	B
9	A
10	B
11	D
12	A
13	A
14	D
15	B/D
16	D
17	A
18	C
19	B
20	B
21	A
22	D
23	A
24	B
25	D

Q No.	Key
26	C
27	A
28	C
29	C
30	D
31	B
32	A
33	D
34	B
35	B
36	C
37	D
38	A
39	A
40	B
41	C
42	B
43	A
44	C
45	B
46	B
47	A
48	B
49	C
50	B

Q No.	Key
51	D
52	D
53	B
54	B
55	B
56	C
57	A
58	A
59	A
60	B
61	D
62	D
63	C
64	D
65	D
66	B
67	B
68	A
69	A
70	B
71	A
72	A
73	A
74	B
75	D

Q No.	Key
76	D
77	A
78	D
79	C
80	A
81	D
82	A
83	D
84	B
85	D
86	A
87	C
88	D
89	C
90	A
91	D
92	B
93	C
94	A
95	C
96	D
97	C
98	A
99	D
100	A

SET D

Q No.	Key
1	A
2	D
3	A
4	B
5	D
6	C
7	A
8	C
9	C
10	D
11	B
12	A
13	D
14	B
15	B
16	C
17	D
18	A
19	A
20	B
21	D
22	A
23	A
24	D
25	B

Q No.	Key
26	D
27	A
28	C
29	B
30	B
31	C
32	B
33	A
34	D
35	B/D
36	B
37	A
38	B
39	C
40	B
41	B
42	B
43	A
44	C
45	D
46	A
47	B
48	B
49	A
50	B

Q No.	Key
51	D
52	B
53	C
54	A
55	C
56	D
57	C
58	A
59	D
60	A
61	A
62	A
63	A
64	B
65	D
66	D
67	A
68	D
69	C
70	A
71	D
72	A
73	D
74	B
75	D

Q No.	Key
76	A
77	C
78	D
79	C
80	A
81	D
82	D
83	B
84	B
85	B
86	C
87	A
88	A
89	A
90	B
91	D
92	D
93	C
94	D
95	D
96	B
97	B
98	A
99	A
100	B

GS Prelims 2019 – Answer Key

Post Author: NITHI IAS